Oncology Extra Questions Batch B – MCQ
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Question 1 of 37
1. Question
1. A 49-year-old para 3 underwent laparoscopic left salpingo- oophorectomy for a complex left ovarian cyst. Histology shows a serous micro papillary borderline ovarian tumor with the presence of DNA aneuploidy. What is the most appropriate management plan?
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Question 2 of 37
2. Question
2. Correct answer :Borderline ovarian tumors are also known as tumors of low malignant potential. They constitute 10–15% of all epithelial ovarian neoplasms.What is the 5-year survival rate of stage 1 borderline ovarian tumor?
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Question 3 of 37
3. Question
3. The lifetime risk of ovarian cancer in the general population is 1.4%. However, women with hereditary ovarian cancer syndrome have significantly higher risks of developing ovarian cancer. What is the risk of ovarian cancer in a woman who has a BRCA1 mutation carrier?
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Question 4 of 37
4. Question
4. Lynch syndrome, also called hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) is associated with the development of multiple types of cancer. What is the suggested management for reduction of risk of developing gynaecological cancers in a 35-year-old woman with HNPCC who has completed her family?
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Question 5 of 37
5. Question
5. NICE recommends not to include systematic retroperitoneal lymphadenectomy as part of standard surgical treatment in women with suspected ovarian cancer whose disease appears to be con- fined to the ovaries (that is, who appears to have stage I disease). What is systematic retroperitoneal lymphadenectomy?
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Question 6 of 37
6. Question
6. NICE recommends that women with suspected stage 1 ovarian cancer should undergo optimal surgical staging. What is optimal surgical staging?
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Question 7 of 37
7. Question
7. A 70-year-old woman underwent optimal surgical staging for suspected early stage ovarian cancer. Her final histology showed stage 1a grade 3 epithelial ovarian cancers. What is the preferred plan of care after discussion in MDT?
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Question 8 of 37
8. Question
8. It is estimated that 75% of women with ovarian cancer currently receive a paclitaxel/platinum combination as first-line therap. Although most patients (70–80%) initially respond to first-line chemotherapy, most responders eventually relapse (55–75% within 2 years).What is the definition of ‘Complete response’ to chemotherapy?
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Question 9 of 37
9. Question
9. A 70-year-old woman has undergone laparotomy for suspected ovarian cancer. At laparotomy, the cancer is found to involve the left ovary and uterus and she has positive peritoneal washings. As per the FIGO classification for staging of ovarian cancer, what is her staging?
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Question 10 of 37
10. Question
10. A 65-year-old woman complaining of severe itching is diagnosed with Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) 3 on biopsy. What is the first line of management?
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Question 11 of 37
11. Question
11. A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of vulval discomfort and soreness for 6 months. On examination, there is 2.5 cm raised ulcerated area on the left labia majora which looks highly suspicious of vulval cancer. What is the first line of investigation?
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Question 12 of 37
12. Question
12. In vulval cancer, the depth of invasion directly correlates with lymph node involvement, thus affecting prognosis and the management plan. What is the rate of lymph node involvement in women with stage 1a (<1mm invasion) vulval cancer?
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Question 13 of 37
13. Question
13. Vulval cancers are relatively rare cancers with surgery as the mainstay of treatment. In recent years, a lot of emphasis has been given to sentinel node biopsy to decide management.
What is the role of sentinel node biopsy in the management of early vulval cancer?CorrectIncorrect -
Question 14 of 37
14. Question
14. Vulval cancers account for 6% of gynaecological cancers in the United Kingdom. In 2009, a new FIGO staging was introduced with greater emphasis on the inguino-femoral lymph node status to understand prognosis.
What is the FIGO stage for a woman who has a 3cm vulval cancer involving the anus with metastases in 2 lymph nodes <5 mm?
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Question 15 of 37
15. Question
15. Primary vaginal cancer is rare. There were 281 cases of vaginal cancer in the United Kingdom in 2010. The most common causes of squamous cell vaginal cancer are HPV and irradiation.
What is the most common HPV type found in vaginal cancers?CorrectIncorrect -
Question 16 of 37
16. Question
16. Recently, the prevalence of HPV-related VIN has increased significantly and consequently the incidence of vulval cancer in young women is rising. What are the most common HPV serotypes found in vulval cancers?
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Question 17 of 37
17. Question
17. A 45-year-old woman complains of intermenstrual bleeding for the past 6 months. Past history includes 6 normal vaginal deliveries and hypertension and last smear was over 5 years ago. On speculum examination, there is a raised 2 cm friable area on the cervix.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Question 18 of 37
18. Question
18. A 40-year-old woman with severe dyskariosis on smear under- went colposcopy and large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ). Histology confirmed a moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma 4mm deep and 6 mm wide. Clinical and radiological examination confirmed organ confined disease. What stage of cervical cancer is this?
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Question 19 of 37
19. Question
19. A 53-year-old woman is diagnosed with stage IA1 cervical squamous cell carcinoma after histological, clinical and radiological assessment.
What is the most appropriate management plan?
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Question 20 of 37
20. Question
20. A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with stage IB1 cervical squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix on histological and clinical assessment. What is the most appropriate radiological investigation for this patient?
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Question 21 of 37
21. Question
21. A 55-year-old patient has had a colposcopic examination or a suspicious well-circumscribed vulval lesion and vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia 3 is identified at histopathology.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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Question 22 of 37
22. Question
22. A 65-year-old patient undergoes a TAH+BSO or a suspicious 8-cm right ovarian mass and normal CA-125. She had originally presented with postmenopausal bleeding. Frozen section examination demonstrates Call–Exner bodies.
It is likely that the pathology specimen will also demonstrate which of the following?
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Question 23 of 37
23. Question
23. In counselling a patient who had recently tested positive or BRCA1 mutation, risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (RRBSO) decreases ovarian cancer risk by:
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Question 24 of 37
24. Question
24. A 25-year-old para 0, who wished to preserve future fertility, underwent a cervical conization after an unsatisfactory colposcopy. The conization specimen demonstrated an invasive carcinoma of the cervix infiltrating 2.5 mm below the basement membrane. There was no evidence of lymphovascular space involvement, and the margins of the cone were free of dysplasia or carcinoma.
What would be the best strategy of management for this patient?
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Question 25 of 37
25. Question
25. A 45-year-old patient is found to have a large cervical cancer infiltrating into the right parametrium. Rectovaginal examination suggests parametrial involvement, although not reaching the pelvic sidewall. A chest x-ray and cystoscopy were both clear. A computed tomography o the abdomen and pelvis, however, shows an enlarged, suspicious le paraaortic lymph node.
What stage of disease is this?
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Question 26 of 37
26. Question
26. A 29-year-old patient is found to have high-grade squamous dyskaryosis at routine cervical smear at 7 weeks’ gestation. Colposcopic biopsies show early invasive disease. A subsequent cold-kni e conization at 17 weeks shows microinvasive carcinoma o the cervix with clear surgical margins.
What would be the most appropriate plan of action?
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Question 27 of 37
27. Question
27. A 60-year-old patient who had previously had a TAH+BSO or benign disease is found to have an exophytic 1-cm nodule in the upper part of the vagina. Biopsies obtained demonstrate an adenocarcinoma.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Question 28 of 37
28. Question
28. In cases of cervical cancer, radical hysterectomy with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy can potentially be used to treat all of the following stages of cervical cancer except
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Question 29 of 37
29. Question
29. A 47-year-old patient with a history of severe endometriosis is found to have a left-sided, 10-cm unilocular cystic mass with a solid component arising from its wall. A computed tomography scan supports this finding and the CA-125 is 300 U/ml.
These findings raise suspicion of:
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Question 30 of 37
30. Question
30. A 55-year-old patient who has a BMI o 39 is scheduled to have a TAH+BSO and pelvic lymphadenectomy or endometrial cancer.
What is the best method to reduce her venous thromboembolic risk?
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Question 31 of 37
31. Question
31. A 40-year-old patient has had a cervical smear showing moderate/ severe dyskaryosis. Colposcopic examination and biopsy conf rm CIN II, and she opts or TAH as her family is complete. Histopathology conf rms completely excised CIN.
What is the most appropriate follow-up?
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Question 32 of 37
32. Question
32. In counselling a 45-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Stage II cervical squamous carcinoma. It is reasonable to quote a 5-year survival rate of around:
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Question 33 of 37
33. Question
33. A 66-year-old patient presented with vulval pruritus. On examination there was a 1.5-cm lesion on her right labia majora with an irregular border; the lesion was tender to touch. An excision biopsy was obtained which showed squamous cell carcinoma with positive margins and invasive disease to 0.8 mm.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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Question 34 of 37
34. Question
34.A 60-year-old patient presents with a 3-month history of intermittent vaginal bleeding. She has been menopausal since the age of 55 and is otherwise fit and well. The vaginal bleeding was sudden in onset and heavy, with the passage of blood clots and intermittent lower abdominal pain. She has no history of postcoital or contact bleeding, weight loss or anorexia and she was not on HRT. A transvaginal ultrasound scan shows an endometrial thickness of 15 mm and Pipelle biopsy confirms endometrial adenocarcinoma. At TAH+BSO, the left ovary was noted to contain solid tumour.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Question 35 of 37
35. Question
35. A 15-year-old patient presents with le lower abdominal pain. Transvaginal and transabdominal ultrasound scans show a 10-cm solid ovarian mass. The lactate dehydrogenase is elevated with a normal alphaetoprotein and human chorionic gonadotropin.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Question 36 of 37
36. Question
36. An endometrial Pipelle biopsy result that you have performed a week ago has shown endometrial hyperplasia with atypia. The patient is a 55-year-old para 0 who has a previous history of breast cancer. When counselling the patient, what would be the chance of her also having an endometrial cancer, if a hysterectomy is performed in the next few weeks?
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Question 37 of 37
37. Question
37. A 56-year-old patient has had an ultrasound scan, which shows a right adnexal unilocular cystic mass, and subsequent computed tomography scan which has confirmed the same findings but with evidence of peritoneal deposits. Her CA-125 is 10 and the RMI is 30.
Where should she receive her treatment?
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