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- A 47-year-old woman presents to her GP with symptoms of HMB with flooding and clots. She is otherwise well. Examination reveals a non-tender uterus that is not enlarged. A FBC has shown signs of reduced haemoglobin.
What investigation is indicated next according to recent NICE guidelines? Choose the single best answer.CorrectIncorrect
2. A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with regular HMB. She has two children and does not want more at present. She is medically well and has no allergies. On examination she has a normal sized uterus that is not tender.
What is the first-line treatment for HMB according to recent NICE guidelines? Choose the single best answer.CorrectIncorrect
3. Menstruation is the shedding of the dead endometrium. Which of the following facts are correct?
Choose the single best answerCorrectIncorrect
4. A 15-year-old patient has had menstrual bleeding every 2 to 4 weeks since menarche 1 year ago. The bleeding can be both heavy and light. It sometimes lasts as long as 2 weeks. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of her problem?CorrectIncorrect
5. A patient complains of heavy but regular menstrual periods. An anatomic cause of the magnitude of her flow has been ruled out. Which of the following has been shown to be most effective in reducing rather than eliminating her menstrual flow?CorrectIncorrect
6. A patient in her forties presents with dysfunctional bleeding. You want to do an endometrial biopsy.
Because she has no insurance, she would prefer not to have the procedure unless it is likely to show important pathology. An endometrial sampling is likely to be reported as showing endometrial hyperplasia in a patient who is which of the following?CorrectIncorrect
7. A 48-year-old woman attends the gynaecology clinic complaining of heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) and occasional intermenstrual bleeding. Her haemoglobin level is 112 g/l. An ultrasound scan demonstrated no obvious abnormality. What other investigation is required?CorrectIncorrect
8. A 35-year-old woman attends the gynaecology clinic complaining of worsening HMB. Investigations have been performed in primary care. Her haemoglobin level is 123 g/l and a pelvic ultrasound scan showed no obvious abnormality. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological treatment?CorrectIncorrect
9. A 24-year-old girl attends the gynaecology clinic with persistent pain over her Pfannenstiel scar that has not settled since her caesarean section of 6 months. What is the incidence of nerve entrapment (defined as highly localised, sharp, stabbing or aching pain, exacerbated by particular movements and persisting beyond 5 weeks or occurring after a pain free interval) after one Pfannenstiel incision?CorrectIncorrect
10. An amniocentesis results show a fetus with 45XO. In counseling the parents, how would you explain that the genetic sex is determined?CorrectIncorrect