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- A 40-year-old patient has had a cervical smear showing moderate/ severe dyskaryosis. Colposcopic examination and biopsy conf rm CIN II, and she opts or TAH as her family is complete. Histopathology conf rms completely excised CIN.What is the most appropriate follow-up?
2.A woman has had her cervical smear. It shows moderate dyskaryosis. She subse-quently had a colposcopy and a loop excision of transformation zone (LETZ) proced-ure. The histopathology shows negative margins.CorrectIncorrect
3. A 36-year-old woman has had a LETZ procedure for cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN). The histopathology result showed negative margins. Six months later the repeat cervical cytology is negative but the HPV is positive.What will be your next management?CorrectIncorrect
4. A 45-year-old woman has had a total hysterectomy for abnormal uterine bleeding. The histopathology result shows positive margins for CIN1.What will be your further management?CorrectIncorrect
5. A woman was found to be 10 weeks pregnant when she attended for her colposcopy appointment for high-grade dyskaryosis. The colposcopy examination suspected CIN1.What will be your further management?CorrectIncorrect