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1. A 47-year-old woman presents to her GP with symptoms of HMB with flooding and clots. She is otherwise well. Examination reveals a non-tender uterus that is not enlarged. A FBC has shown signs of reduced haemoglobin.What investigation is indicated next according to recent NICE guidelines? Choose the single best answerCorrectIncorrect
2. A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with regular HMB. She has two children and does not want more at present. She is medically well and has no allergies. On examination she has a normal sized uterus that is not tender. What is the first-line treatment for HMB according to recent NICE guidelines? Choose the single best answer.CorrectIncorrect
3. Menstruation is the shedding of the dead endometrium. Which of the following facts are correct? Choose the single best answer.CorrectIncorrect
4. A 15-year-old patient has had menstrual bleeding every 2 to 4 weeks since menarche 1 year ago. The bleeding can be both heavy and light. It sometimes lasts as long as 2 weeks. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of her problem?CorrectIncorrect
5. A patient complains of heavy but regular menstrual periods. An anatomic cause of the magnitude of her flow has been ruled out. Which of the following has been shown to be most effective in reducing rather than eliminating her menstrual flow?CorrectIncorrect
6. A patient in her forties presents with dysfunctional bleeding. You want to do an endometrial biopsy. Because she has no insurance, she would prefer not to have the procedure unless it is likely to show important pathology. An endometrial sampling is likely to be reported as showing endometrial hyperplasia in a patient who is which of the following?CorrectIncorrect