FCPS Part-2 Written-Infections In Pregnancy & Fetal Conditions

1. A 24 years old P1 presented with h/o an emergency Caesarean section for failure to progress. She was not sure if she had a past varicella zoster virus (VZV) infection. She was tested and found non.immune. She requests postpartum vaccination. What is your advice for breastfeeding?

2. A 25years old G2P1 presented with H/O recent contact with a friend with chickenpox (varicella zoster). On testing, she is not immune to the infection. What is your immediate plan of care?

3. A 22 years old primigravida has resented with signs and symptoms of chickenpox in the last 24 hours. What advice will you give him?

4. A 27 years old G3P2 at 22 weeks of gestation is seen in the antenatal clinic. Her hepatitis screening test shows IgM antibody to the hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg ). What is your diagnosis?

5. At what gestational age should you advise starting treatment with tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) to hepatitis B-infected pregnant women as advised by NICE, to reduce mother to-child vertical transmission (MTCT)?

6. How will you counsel a hepatitis B-positive woman regarding breadt feeding who has just delivered?

7. An unbooked unscreened G2P1 has presented in early labour. What is your advice for the immediate follow-up for the baby regarding Hep B status?

8. A 29 years old G3P2 at 35 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary genital herpes. She received acyclovir treatment but was reluctant to accept Caesarean section delivery. What are the risks of the baby developing neonatal herpes if she has a vaginal delivery?

9. A 25 years old primigravida at 35 weeks of gestation presented with C/O painful  vulval blisters. She was diagnosed with genital herpes when she was 25 weeks pregnant and received acyclovir treatment. She is not keen on Caesarean section delivery. What is your first line of investigation to help her decide the mode of delivery?

10. A 24 years old woman at 12 weeks of gestation has a serum screening test showing a VDRL/RPR titre of >16. This result indicates she has:

11. A 25 years old woman at 33 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with a syphilis infection. What is your first-line treatment option?

12. a 24 years old G2P1 resented at 16 weeks of gestation with H/O being a GBS carrier diagnosed from a vaginal swab in her previous pregnancy. What treatment options would you recommend?

13. A 24years old G4P3 at 26 weeks of gestation with H/O multiple sexual partners, is seen in the antenatal clinic. She had screened negative for HIV infection at her 13-week booking visit. How would you re-counsel her to reduce possible MTCT?

14. A 28years old primigravida at 14 weeks of gestation has screened positive for HIV infection. She agrees to start combined antiretroviral therapy (cART). When would you test her viral load in order to monitor her adherence to treatment?

15. A 25years old primigravida at 11 weeks of gestation has screened positive for HIV infection. How would you counsel her about her options for the best time to start cART?

16. A 28 years old primigravida at term presented in established labour. She is 6-cm dilated. Her previous screening showed she is HIV screen positive but did not have any treatment. What is your immediate management?

17. A 24years old woman has presented at 36 weeks of gestation. She is positive for HIV with viral load of <50 HIV-RNA copies/mL. what would be your plan for her delivery?

18. A 30 years old woman at 29 weeks of gestation. She has just came back from brazil and has complain of a low-grade fever, and a maculopapular rash. What is your next course of action?

19. A 26 years old primigravida at 32 weeks’ gestation presented with fever, myalgias, and a rash of 2 days’ duration. She has widely dispersed vesicular lesions with pruritis. Mortality from this infection is predominately due to which of the following?

20. One manifestation of congenital varicella syndrome is limb scarring. At which of the following gestational ages did infection most likely occur?

21. A 31 years old primigravida at 8 weeks’ gestation presents complaining of a fever and rash of 5 day’s duration. The rash started on her face and has spread to her trunk and extremities. Given her gestational age, which of the following infections would be the most concerning or this patient and her fetus?

22. The most common single defect associated with congenital rubella is which of the following?

23. A 20 years old primigravida at 18 weeks’ gestation presents with C/O several colds from last few days associate with headache, nausea, and pharyngitis. She has just started working at a day care center and is concerned about acquiring infections from the children. Three weeks ago, one child in particular was ill. You send serological testing for parvovirus B19. Which of the following testing outcomes would satisfy you that she is immune and needs no further evaluation?

24. Which of the following is not a risk factor for intrapartum group B streptococcus (GBS)

transmission?

25. A 26 years old G3P2 at 34 weeks’ gestation presents with decreased fetal movement, fever, myalgias, and headache for 4 days. Her fetus is dead. She is 3-cm dilated, and with rupture of membranes, dark-brown fluid is seen. Postpartum, the patient is diagnosed with listeriosis. Which of the following is prefferred treatment for her?

26. Which of the following statements regarding toxoplasmosis infection in pregnancy is true?

27. Which of the following fetal outcomes is not associated with toxoplasmosis infection during

pregnancy?

28. a 28years old G2P1 presented at 32 weeks gestation with suspected growth restriction and has oligohydramnios and an abnormal calvarium. Which antihypertensive agent taken by the mother may have caused this problem?

29. which of Category X drug if taken in pregnancy causes skull, palate, jaw, eye, limb, and

gastrointestinal anomalies in animal models?

30. Which of the following genitourinary anomalies is not typically associated with prenatal exposure to

diethylstilbestrol?

31. which of the following agents can lead to neonatal toxicity with Prenatal exposure near term. Effects including hypothyroidism, diabetes insipidus, cardiomegaly, bradycardia, and hypotonia?

32. Which of following drug can lead to central nervous system defects such as agenesis of the corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation, and midline cerebellar malformations when used in the second and third trimesters?

33. Which of the following generalizations is true regarding the reproductive capacity of adults with

Down syndrome?

34. which of following genetic condition includes choroid plexus cysts in the midtrimester scan of pregnancy?

35. A 25 years old G2P1 presented with Alobar holoprosencephaly  on anomaly scan at 18 weeks’ gestation.  Which of the following genetic conditions is frequently associated with this finding?

36. The majority of monosomy X conceptions result in?

37. Which of the following genetic disorders is frequently associated with advanced paternal age?

38. A couple is referred for genetic counseling because the woman has several relatives with the some