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Q1. A 45-year-old woman complains of pelvic pressure and abnormal uterine bleeding. Ultrasound reveals an enlarged uterus with an intramural 4 cmmass. Which of the following is the most common uterine neoplasm?CorrectIncorrect
Q2.A 33-year-old patient has been diagnosed as having adenomyosis. Which of the following symptoms is most consistent with this diagnosis?CorrectIncorrect
Q3. Which of the following is the most common indication for treatment of uterine leiomyomata in a 42- year-old woman?CorrectIncorrect
Q4. A parous 35-year-old woman complains of cyclical heavy and painful menstrual bleeding. On examination she is found to have an enlarged, ‘boggy’ uterus and a TVUSS suggests the possibility of adenomyosis. She has completed her family and currently relies on condoms for contraception. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day but is otherwise fit and well. Which treatment would you consider most appropriate? Choose the single best answer.CorrectIncorrect
5.Submucous fibroids are not associated with which of the following presentations? Choose the single best answer.CorrectIncorrect
6.A 45-year-old patient with uterine leiomyomata found on pelvic examination complains of excessive uterine bleeding. Which of the following should be the next step in the management of this patient?CorrectIncorrect
Q7. A 26-year-old patient is found to have an 8-week size, irregular uterus. She does not complain of pain or excessive menstrual bleeding. Her Pap smear is normal, and a pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best step in the management of this patient?CorrectIncorrect
Q8. A 40-year-old woman is found on pelvic examination to have an enlarged uterus. Ultrasound reveals a well-circumscribed intramural mass consistent with the leiomyoma. The patient asks: what is the incidence of sarcomatous degeneration in a uterine leiomyoma?CorrectIncorrect
9.A 36-year-old woman is complaining of having had heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) for two years. Abdominal examination reveals a 20-week sized uterus and her pelvic scan shows multiple interstitial fibroids. Her haemoglobin level is 9 gm/dL. She is nulliparous and wishes to preserve her fertility. What management option would you recommend?CorrectIncorrect
Q10. A 30-year-old woman comes to see you because of her symptomatic fibroid uterus. She has read about uterine artery embolization. She wants to know how it may compare to other methods of treatment. Which is the best statement you can give her regarding the complications of this procedure?CorrectIncorrect