FCPS Part 2 Written – 2 Months Course July 22 – Urogynaecology – Day 2
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1.A 55-year-old patient presents with a history of urinary symptoms of urgency, increased frequency and nocturia. The patient states that she does not have symptoms of hesitancy and feels as though she empties her bladder completely.
What would be the first line of management?CorrectIncorrect
2. A patient presents as an emergency with urinary retention. Upon taking a history, you also discover that the patient has been having hematuria for several weeks. What is an absolute contraindication to inserting a suprapubic catheter?CorrectIncorrect
3.A fit and healthy 52-year-old patient with confirmed detrusor overactivity has tried three different medical treatments (Oxybutynin, Solifenacin, Mirabegron). The procedure that should be offered to the patient isCorrectIncorrect
4. A 38-year-old patient is suffering with stress incontinence. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2 and the patient is interested in lifestyle management for her incontinence. What is the most important lifestyle change that you would recommend?CorrectIncorrect
5.A 38-year-old patient is suffering with symptoms of an overactive bladder. Her BMI is 25 kg/m2 and the patient is interested in lifestyle changes.
What is the most important lifestyle change that you would recommend?CorrectIncorrect
6. An 84-year-old patient presents with symptoms of urgency, urgency incontinence and nocturia. The patient is taking several different medications for other medical conditions. A diagnosis of overactive bladder is made.
The general practitioner has already tried Oxybutynin but the patient had side effects (central nervous system) and this was stopped.
Which anticholinergic medication would you now consider?CorrectIncorrect
7.Painful bladder syndrome is characterised by all of the below except:CorrectIncorrect
8.Ms. XY is 60 years old. She presents with symptoms suggestive of an overactive bladder. Urine dip is negative for leucocytes and nitrites. She does not smoke or consume caffeine. Examination reveals no prolapse. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice?CorrectIncorrect
9.Ms. XY is 60 years old. She presents with symptoms suggestive of an overactive bladder. Urine dip is negative for leucocytes and nitrites. She does not smoke or consume caffeine. Examination reveals no prolapse. Conservative therapies and OAB drugs have failed to improve her symptoms. After an MDT discussion, a decision is reached to try botulinum toxin
Which of the following is an appropriate starting dose of the toxin?CorrectIncorrect
10. ‘Long-term’ intraurethral catheters are kept in situ for at the most:CorrectIncorrect