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1.A 34-year-old para 2 woman with two previous normal deliveries comes in spontaneous labour at 40 weeks’ gestation. She was low risk and was found to be in established labour at 6 cm cervical dilatation with intact membranes. A few hours after this examination, she had spontaneous rupture of membranes, fully dilated cervix and a brow presentation. What is the diameter of the presenting part?CorrectIncorrect
2.A 28-year-old woman with a past history of a third-degree tear was admitted in established labour and progressed well. She was in the second stage of labour and was actively pushing with good descent. Which one of the following would be most appropriate in preventing the obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS)?CorrectIncorrect
3.What is the risk of umbilical cord prolapse in breech presentation?CorrectIncorrect
4.You were asked to see a 29-year-old nulliparous woman in the active second stage of labour, pushing for about an hour and exhausted, asking for a caesarean section. She was induced at 38 weeks for type 1 diabetes and suspected macrosomia. She is contracting 4 in 10 minutes and the CTG is normal. Per abdomen, 0/5th head was palpable and you have confirmed full dilatation, absent membranes, right occipito-posterior (ROP) position with the vertex at spines and descent to +1 during pushing. What is the most appropriate management plan?CorrectIncorrect
5.A nulliparous woman at 40 + 2 gestation was admitted in spontaneous labour and progressed satisfactorily to full dilatation 2 hours ago. On reassessment there is no change in the descent with the vertex at −1 station, the position is occipitoanterior with absent membranes, no caput or moulding. Epidural is effective, contractions are three in 10 minutes and the CTG is normal. What is the most appropriate management?CorrectIncorrect
6.A 34-year-old nulliparous woman in the second stage of labour has been pushing for the last two hours and is exhausted. The CTG is normal; the head is 1 cm above the ischial spines, in occipitoanterior position. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action?CorrectIncorrect
7.A 23-year-old nulliparous woman has been pushing for two hours. The head is notpalpable abdominally, the cervix is fully dilated, and on vaginal examination, the head is in right occipitoposterior position with minimal caput. The station is 1 cm below the ischial spine. The CTG is reassuring.Which of the following management options would be the most appropriate?CorrectIncorrect