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- A para 2 woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 40, two previous caesarean sections and history of deep vein thrombosis at 33 weeks’ gestation has taken her last dose of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) at 6 a.m. the day before. Her elective caesarean section at 39 weeks was uncomplicated under combined spinal epidural (CSE) anaesthesia at 9 a.m., and the epidural catheter was removed at the end of surgery a few minutes ago, at 10 a.m. After what time can she have her LMWH injection?
- Ms. XY was diagnosed to have an acute DVT at 34 weeks of gestation. She received antenatal LMWH. She has delivered this morning (38 weeks). She would like to discuss warfarin for postpartum thromboprophylaxis as she would rather avoid needles. She would like to breastfeed. Which of the following treatment options are best suited to her ?
- A 37-year-old primigravida weighing 102 kg (BMI 40 kg/m2) is seen in an antenatal clinic for booking. She conceived via assisted conception following a long period of subfertility. Ultrasound has confirmed a dichorionic diamniotic twin pregnancy of 11+5 days gestation. What is the best practice with regard to reducing maternal risk of venous thromboembolism?
- Which of the following is the most common complication of full anticoagulation with low-molecular weight heparin?
- Which of the following is a potential consequence of bed rest for suspected preterm labor?
- You perform a cesarean section on a 23-year-old woman whose body mass index is 45 kg/m2 . You want to avoid thromboembolic complications. You order all except which of the following postoperatively?
- All except which of the following is an aspect of Virchow’s triad?
- Which of the following pregnancy-related factors contributes to an increased risk for venous thromboembolism?
- Why does the presence of a factor V Leiden mutation lead to increased risk for venous thromboembolism?
- What has led to a decrease in the frequency of venous thromboembolism in the puerperium?