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1.A 30-year-old para 1 woman with an uncomplicated dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) pregnancy goes into spontaneous labour at 36 weeks and delivers the first twin with cephalic presentation. The second twin is in breech presentation with good descent during contractions. The CTG is normal with four to five contractions in 10 minutes and the epidural is effective. SROM occurred with cord prolapse and the feet at the introitus. What is the most appropriate management?CorrectIncorrect
2.A 30-year-old para 1 woman at 37 weeks’ gestation with breech presentation had an unsuccessful external cephalic version. She opted to have a vaginal breech delivery after counselling. What is the risk of umbilical cord prolapse in breech presentation?CorrectIncorrect
3.A 30-year-old woman with a previous history of caesarean section and multiple uterine fibroids had a repeat elective caesarean section due to breech presentation. She had massive postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) secondary to uterine atony with an estimated blood loss of 3 L. She is RhD-negative and had transfusion of the group specific packed red cells, reinfusion of the salvaged red cells from the cell saver and also fresh frozen plasma (FFP), cryoprecipitate and platelets. The cord blood group was confirmed as RhD-negative. Anti-D prophylaxis should be administered in which one of the options, if she had the following blood products transfused?CorrectIncorrect
4. On her first prenatal visit, a 17-year-old single woman (gravida 1, para 0), 32 weeks by good dates, is found to have vital signs as follows: BP, 135/85; P, 84; T, 98.6°F; and R, 20. She also has ankle and hand edema and a uterine fundus measuring 42 cmwith breech concordant twins on ultrasound. She has normal pelvic measurements and the cervix is closed and soft, with the presenting part at station −1. Her UA revealed no WBCs or bacteria with 2+ protein. Her hematocrit is 38, and her WBC count is 9800. The next step in care of this patient should include which of the following?CorrectIncorrect
5. A fetus presents in breech position and is delivered without assistance as far as the umbilicus. The remainder of the body is manually assisted by the obstetrician. What is this called?CorrectIncorrect
6.A 28-year-old G3P2002 patient presents at 38 weeks’ gestation. A fetus was felt to be in breech position as judged by information gained through Leopold’s maneuvers. The fetus was well down in the pelvis, and the uterus was irritable. Pelvimetry was within normal limits, and the estimated fetal weight was 7½ lb and ultrasound confirms a frank breech with a well-flexed head and AFI of 14 cm. Assuming the provider has adequate experience in each of the following, what would not be offered to the patient as an approach to delivery management?CorrectIncorrect
7.Transverse lie in a multipara at termin labor is best treated by which of the following?CorrectIncorrect
8. A 30-year-old methamphetamine user presents to L&D in active labor. She has had no prenatal care, but says she is 9½ months. You check fetal position and feel face and nose. You are concerned, because the most common associated condition with a face presentation is which of the following?CorrectIncorrect
9.A woman without prenatal care in labor at 38 weeks has a breech presentation. As the breech is expelled, a spina bifida is noted. The head does not deliver. With this history, what is the most likely problem?CorrectIncorrect
10.A 27-year-old G2P1 at 29 weeks’ gestation who is being followed for Rh isoimmunization presents for her OB visit. The fundal height is noted to be 33 cm. An ultrasound reveals fetal ascites and a pericardial effusion. Which of the following can be another finding in fetal hydrops?CorrectIncorrect