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- Which of the following is a selective progesterone receptor modulator?
- Medical management of fi broids is best indicated when:
- The incidence of chronic pelvic pain in women of reproductive age group is:
- The commonest pathology identifi ed at diagnostic laparoscopy in patients with chronic pelvic pain is:
- The incidence of adnexal pathology detected for the fi rst time in pregnancy is:
- The preferred period for intervention for an ovarian mass in pregnancy is:
- Pick the correct statement regarding management of ovarian cysts in pregnancy.
- A 45-year-old woman presents with right-sided nipple discharge. Clinical examination and mammography showed no abnormalities. Which one of the following is the next most appropriate action?
- Which one of the following is correct in relation to polycystic ovarian syndrome, PCOS?
- Obstetric outcomes in pregnancy after uterine artery embolisation—which of the following is not true?
11.A 28-year-old amenorrhoeic woman who wishes to become pregnant attends the fertility clinic complaining of galactorrhoea and mild visual disturbance. Her serum prolactin level was found to be elevated. An MRI scan of the head is performed, which showed the presence of a macroprolactinoma, but without supracellar extension. What is the most appropriate first line management?CorrectIncorrect
12.In the female, which cell type secretes Anti-Mullerian hormone?CorrectIncorrect
- A woman with tubal disease is advised to have IVF treatment to maximise her chances of pregnancy. On reading the information leaflet, she is very concerned about the risks of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome. What is the chance of developing severe ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) and requiring hospitalisation in women undergoing controlled ovarian hyperstimulation?
- What is the predominant cause of anovulatory infertility?
- What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for anovulatory polycystic ovary syndrome?
- A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with galactorrhoea and secondary amenorrhoea. A serum prolactin level is measured and found to be elevated. What is the main mechanism by which hyperprolactinemia causes secondary amenorrhoea?
- Following an IVF treatment cycle where 15 oocytes were collected, a patient presents to the clinic with abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting.
An ultrasound scan is performed, which shows the ovaries to be enlarged with a mean diameter of 10 cm. There is a small amount of ascites. What is the diagnosis?CorrectIncorrect
18.What type of electrolyte disturbance is often seen in association with severe cases of OHSS?CorrectIncorrect
- A woman with a severe cases of OHSS initially presented with tense ascites, oliguria and a haematocrit of 46%. She was treated with appropriate fluid replacement and the haematocrit is now in the normal range. However, she remains markedly oliguric. What is the appropriate management?
- What is the recommended test for the biochemical detection of hyperandrogenism?